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ISACA IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Risk Monitoring, Reporting, and Communication: This domain targets tracking and communicating risk information within organizations. It focuses on best practices for monitoring ongoing risks, reporting findings to stakeholders, and ensuring effective communication throughout the organization.

Topic 2

Risk Identification: This section focuses on recognizing potential risks within IT systems. It explores various techniques for identifying risks, including threats, vulnerabilities, and other factors that could impact organizational operations.

Topic 3

Risk Governance and Management: This domain targets risk management professionals who establish and oversee risk governance frameworks. It covers the structures, policies, and processes necessary for effective governance of risk within an organization. Candidates will learn about the roles and responsibilities of key stakeholders in the risk management process, as well as best practices for aligning risk governance with organizational goals and regulatory requirements.

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IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Actual Tests & IT-Risk-Fundamentals Reliable Braindumps Files

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ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q67-Q72):

NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following is the FIRST step in an advanced persistent threat (APT) attack?

A. Use social engineering to encourage employees to visit an infected website.
B. Identify administrators and crack passwords to obtain administrator access.
C. Collect information on the infrastructure of an organization to know where to attack.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first step in an APT attack is typically reconnaissance. Attackers need to understand the target organization's infrastructure, systems, and people before they can effectively plan and execute the attack. This involves collecting information about the organization's network, systems, applications, security controls, and employees. This reconnaissance phase is crucial for the attackers to identify vulnerabilities and entry points.
While social engineering (B) and password cracking (A) are common tactics used during an APT, they are not usually the first step.

NEW QUESTION # 68
Which type of assessment evaluates the changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise?

A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Threat assessment
C. Control self-assessment

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Threat Assessment evaluates changes in the technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise. This process involves identifying potential threats that could exploit vulnerabilities in the system, leading to significant impacts on the organization's operations, financial status, or reputation. It is essential to distinguish between different types of assessments:
* Vulnerability Assessment: Focuses on identifying weaknesses in the system that could be exploited by threats. It does not specifically evaluate changes in the environment but rather the existing vulnerabilities within the system.
* Threat Assessment: Involves evaluating changes in the technical or operating environments that could introduce new threats or alter the impact of existing threats. It looks at how external and internal changes could create potential risks for the organization. This assessment is crucial for understanding how the evolving environment can influence the threat landscape.
* Control Self-Assessment (CSA): A process where internal controls are evaluated by the employees responsible for them. It helps in identifying control gaps but does not specifically focus on changes in the environment or their impact.
Given these definitions, the correct type of assessment that evaluates changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise is the Threat Assessment.

NEW QUESTION # 69
The use of risk scenarios to guide senior management through a rapidly changing market environment is considered a key risk management

A. incentive.
B. capability.
C. benefit.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following MUST be consistent with the defined criteria when establishing the risk management context as it relates to calculation of risk?

A. Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key performance indicators (KPIs)
B. Risk appetite and tolerance levels
C. Formulas and methods for combining impact and likelihood

Answer: C

Explanation:
When establishing the risk management context for calculating risk, the formulas and methods for combining impact and likelihood must be consistent with the defined criteria. This ensures that the risk calculations are accurate and meaningful. If the formulas and methods are not consistent, the resulting risk scores may not accurately reflect the true level of risk.
While risk appetite and tolerance (A) are important for overall risk management, they don't directly dictate the formulas for calculation. KRIs and KPIs (C) are used for monitoring, not calculation.

NEW QUESTION # 71
The MOST important reason for developing and monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide:

A. an early warning of possible risk materialization.
B. information about control compliance.
C. measurable metrics for acceptable risk levels.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Step by Step Comprehensive Detailed Explanation with All References:
* Purpose of KRIs:
* KRIs are designed to provide early warnings about potential risk events.
* They help organizations to take preventive actions before risks become critical issues.
* Early Warning System:
* KRIs are critical for proactive risk management, enabling organizations to respond quickly to changes in risk levels.
* They complement other risk management tools by focusing on early detection.
* References:
* ISA 315 (Revised 2019), Anlage 5discusses the importance of timely and accurate information in managing and mitigating risks effectively.

NEW QUESTION # 72
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